Neet prep 2025

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NEET 2024 Physics MCQs (With Answers & Explanations)

Q1. A particle has displacement x = t³ - 3t² + 2t. Acceleration at t = 2s is:

  • A) 0
  • B) 2
  • C) 6
  • D) 12
Answer: C) 6
Explanation: Velocity = dx/dt = 3t² - 6t + 2
Acceleration = d²x/dt² = 6t - 6
At t=2 → a = 12 - 6 = 6 m/s²

Q2. Dimensional formula of Planck’s constant:

  • A) ML²T⁻¹
  • B) ML²T⁻²
  • C) MLT⁻¹
  • D) ML²T⁻³
Answer: A) ML²T⁻¹
Explanation: h = Energy × time → (ML²T⁻² × T) = ML²T⁻¹

Q3. Kinetic energy (m=2 kg, v=5 m/s):

  • A) 10 J
  • B) 25 J
  • C) 50 J
  • D) 100 J
Answer: C) 50 J
Explanation: KE = ½mv² = ½ × 2 × 25 = 50 J

Q4. If force is doubled and mass halved, acceleration becomes:

  • A) Same
  • B) Double
  • C) Four times
  • D) Half
Answer: C) Four times
Explanation: a = F/m → (2F)/(m/2) = 4F/m → 4a

Q5. Work done on equipotential surface:

  • A) Maximum
  • B) Minimum
  • C) Zero
  • D) Infinite
Answer: C) Zero
Explanation: Potential difference = 0 → Work = qV = 0

Q6. Unit of electric field:

  • A) Volt
  • B) Newton
  • C) N/C
  • D) Coulomb
Answer: C) N/C
Explanation: Electric field = Force/Charge → N/C

Q7. Convex lens forms same size image when object at:

  • A) F
  • B) 2F
  • C) F/2
  • D) Infinity
Answer: B) 2F
Explanation: At 2F, image is same size and real.

Q8. SI unit of magnetic flux:

  • A) Tesla
  • B) Weber
  • C) Henry
  • D) Ampere
Answer: B) Weber
Explanation: Magnetic flux unit = Weber (Wb)

Q9. Vector quantity:

  • A) Speed
  • B) Work
  • C) Energy
  • D) Velocity
Answer: D) Velocity
Explanation: Velocity has magnitude + direction.

Q10. Time period (f=50 Hz):

  • A) 0.02 s
  • B) 0.2 s
  • C) 2 s
  • D) 20 s
Answer: A) 0.02 s
Explanation: T = 1/f = 1/50 = 0.02 s

Q11. The slope of velocity-time graph gives:

  • A) Displacement
  • B) Acceleration
  • C) Force
  • D) Momentum
Answer: B) Acceleration
Explanation: Slope of v-t graph = change in velocity/time = acceleration.

Q12. A body in uniform circular motion has:

  • A) Zero acceleration
  • B) Constant magnitude but changing direction
  • C) Increasing acceleration
  • D) Decreasing acceleration
Answer: B
Explanation: Speed is constant but direction changes → centripetal acceleration.

Q13. Escape velocity depends on:

  • A) Mass of body
  • B) Radius of Earth
  • C) Mass of Earth
  • D) Both B and C
Answer: D
Explanation: v = √(2GM/R) → depends on mass and radius of Earth.

Q14. SI unit of power is:

  • A) Joule
  • B) Watt
  • C) Newton
  • D) Pascal
Answer: B
Explanation: Power = work/time → unit is Watt.

Q15. In SHM, acceleration is proportional to:

  • A) Velocity
  • B) Displacement
  • C) Time
  • D) Frequency
Answer: B
Explanation: a = −ω²x → directly proportional to displacement.

Q16. Time period of simple pendulum depends on:

  • A) Mass
  • B) Length
  • C) Amplitude
  • D) Density
Answer: B
Explanation: T = 2π√(L/g) → depends only on length.

Q17. Speed of sound increases with:

  • A) Decrease in temperature
  • B) Increase in temperature
  • C) Increase in humidity
  • D) Both B and C
Answer: D
Explanation: Higher temperature & humidity increase speed of sound.

Q18. Total internal reflection occurs when light travels:

  • A) Rarer to denser
  • B) Denser to rarer
  • C) Vacuum to air
  • D) Air to vacuum
Answer: B
Explanation: TIR occurs when light goes from denser to rarer medium at critical angle.

Q19. SI unit of capacitance is:

  • A) Ohm
  • B) Farad
  • C) Henry
  • D) Volt
Answer: B
Explanation: Capacitance = charge/voltage → unit Farad.

Q20. Magnetic field inside a long solenoid is:

  • A) Zero
  • B) Uniform
  • C) Decreasing
  • D) Increasing
Answer: B
Explanation: Inside a long solenoid, magnetic field is constant and uniform.

Q21. Ohm’s law is valid for:

  • A) All materials
  • B) Metals
  • C) Insulators
  • D) Semiconductors
Answer: B) Metals
Explanation: Ohm’s law (V ∝ I) is valid for ohmic conductors like metals under constant temperature.

Q22. Resistance of a conductor depends on:

  • A) Length
  • B) Area
  • C) Temperature
  • D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
Explanation: R = ρL/A and resistivity changes with temperature.

Q23. Charge on an electron is:

  • A) +1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C
  • B) −1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C
  • C) 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁰ C
  • D) 0
Answer: B
Explanation: Electron carries negative elementary charge = −1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C.

Q24. Half-life of a substance is 10 days. After 20 days, remaining quantity is:

  • A) 1/2
  • B) 1/4
  • C) 1/8
  • D) 1/16
Answer: B) 1/4
Explanation: After 2 half-lives → (1/2)² = 1/4 remains.

Q25. Binding energy of nucleus is due to:

  • A) Gravitational force
  • B) Nuclear force
  • C) Magnetic force
  • D) Electric force
Answer: B
Explanation: Strong nuclear force binds nucleons together inside nucleus.

Q26. Wavelength of light is inversely proportional to:

  • A) Frequency
  • B) Speed
  • C) Amplitude
  • D) Intensity
Answer: A
Explanation: c = νλ → λ ∝ 1/ν.

Q27. SI unit of pressure is:

  • A) Joule
  • B) Watt
  • C) Pascal
  • D) Newton
Answer: C
Explanation: Pressure = Force/Area → unit = Pascal.

Q28. Which law explains buoyancy?

  • A) Newton’s law
  • B) Archimedes’ principle
  • C) Ohm’s law
  • D) Hooke’s law
Answer: B
Explanation: Upthrust equals weight of displaced fluid → Archimedes principle.

Q29. Energy stored in capacitor is:

  • A) CV
  • B) CV²
  • C) ½CV²
  • D) C²V
Answer: C
Explanation: Energy formula = ½CV².

Q30. Transformer works on:

  • A) DC current
  • B) AC current
  • C) Both AC and DC
  • D) Static charge
Answer: B
Explanation: Transformer works on electromagnetic induction, which requires changing current (AC).

Q31. SI unit of momentum is:

  • A) kg·m/s
  • B) N·m
  • C) Joule
  • D) Watt
Answer: A) kg·m/s
Explanation: Momentum = mass × velocity → unit = kg·m/s.

Q32. Work-energy theorem states:

  • A) Work = force
  • B) Work = change in kinetic energy
  • C) Work = momentum
  • D) Work = power
Answer: B
Explanation: Net work done on a body equals change in its kinetic energy.

Q33. Angular momentum of a system is:

  • A) Not conserved
  • B) Conserved
  • C) Zero always
  • D) Infinite
Answer: B
Explanation: In absence of external torque, angular momentum remains conserved.

Q34. Torque is defined as:

  • A) r × F
  • B) F/r
  • C) r/F
  • D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Torque = position vector × force → τ = r × F.

Q35. Hooke’s law states:

  • A) F ∝ x²
  • B) F ∝ x
  • C) F ∝ 1/x
  • D) F = constant
Answer: B
Explanation: Within elastic limit, force is directly proportional to displacement → F = −kx.

Q36. Bernoulli’s principle relates to:

  • A) Energy
  • B) Pressure
  • C) Fluid flow
  • D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: Bernoulli’s theorem relates pressure, kinetic energy, and potential energy in fluid flow.

Q37. Doppler effect refers to change in:

  • A) Frequency
  • B) Amplitude
  • C) Speed
  • D) Phase
Answer: A
Explanation: Apparent change in frequency due to relative motion of source and observer.

Q38. Young’s double slit experiment demonstrates:

  • A) Interference
  • B) Diffraction
  • C) Reflection
  • D) Refraction
Answer: A
Explanation: It proves wave nature of light through interference pattern.

Q39. Gauss’s law relates:

  • A) Charge and electric field
  • B) Current
  • C) Voltage
  • D) Resistance
Answer: A
Explanation: Electric flux through a surface is proportional to enclosed charge.

Q40. Kirchhoff’s laws deal with:

  • A) Voltage and current
  • B) Force
  • C) Energy
  • D) Power
Answer: A
Explanation: Kirchhoff’s laws include current law (junction) and voltage law (loop).

Q41. AC current varies:

  • A) Linearly
  • B) Sinusoidally
  • C) Constant
  • D) Randomly
Answer: B
Explanation: Alternating current changes direction and magnitude sinusoidally.

Q42. Photoelectric effect is emission of electrons due to:

  • A) Light
  • B) Heat
  • C) Current
  • D) Voltage
Answer: A
Explanation: When light of sufficient frequency falls on metal, electrons are emitted.

Q43. Nuclear decay is:

  • A) Stable process
  • B) Random process
  • C) Constant process
  • D) Linear process
Answer: B
Explanation: Radioactive decay is spontaneous and random in nature.

Q44. Semiconductor diode acts as:

  • A) Amplifier
  • B) Rectifier
  • C) Storage device
  • D) Generator
Answer: B
Explanation: Diodes allow current in one direction → used for rectification.

Q45. Logic gates are used in:

  • A) Analog systems
  • B) Digital systems
  • C) Mechanical systems
  • D) Optical systems
Answer: B
Explanation: Logic gates form the basis of digital electronics.

Q46. Electromagnetic induction produces:

  • A) Charge
  • B) EMF
  • C) Current
  • D) Voltage only
Answer: B
Explanation: Changing magnetic flux induces EMF (Faraday’s law).

Q47. Lenz’s law gives:

  • A) Direction of induced current
  • B) Magnitude
  • C) Speed
  • D) Time
Answer: A
Explanation: Lenz’s law gives direction opposing change in flux.

Q48. Resonance occurs at:

  • A) Maximum amplitude
  • B) Minimum amplitude
  • C) Zero amplitude
  • D) Constant amplitude
Answer: A
Explanation: At resonance, system vibrates with maximum amplitude.

Q49. Wave speed depends on:

  • A) Medium
  • B) Frequency
  • C) Amplitude
  • D) Phase
Answer: A
Explanation: Wave speed depends on properties of the medium.

Q50. Sound waves are:

  • A) Transverse
  • B) Longitudinal
  • C) Electromagnetic
  • D) Stationary
Answer: B
Explanation: Sound waves propagate as longitudinal waves in medium.

NEET 2024 Chemistry MCQs (With Answers & Explanations)

Q51. Number of particles in one mole is:

  • A) 6.022 × 10²³
  • B) 3.011 × 10²³
  • C) 1 × 10²³
  • D) 9.8 × 10²³
Answer: A
Explanation: One mole contains Avogadro number = 6.022 × 10²³ particles.

Q52. Ideal gas equation is:

  • A) PV = nRT
  • B) PV = RT
  • C) P = nRT
  • D) V = nRT
Answer: A
Explanation: Ideal gas equation relates pressure, volume, temperature and moles.

Q53. Unit of molarity is:

  • A) mol/kg
  • B) mol/L
  • C) g/L
  • D) kg/mol
Answer: B
Explanation: Molarity = moles of solute per liter of solution.

Q54. First law of thermodynamics states:

  • A) Energy is created
  • B) Energy is destroyed
  • C) Energy is conserved
  • D) Energy is constant
Answer: C
Explanation: Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed.

Q55. Enthalpy is heat at:

  • A) Constant volume
  • B) Constant pressure
  • C) Constant temperature
  • D) Constant energy
Answer: B
Explanation: Enthalpy change represents heat change at constant pressure.

Q56. Rate of reaction depends on:

  • A) Temperature
  • B) Concentration
  • C) Catalyst
  • D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: All these factors affect collision frequency and energy.

Q57. Order of reaction is:

  • A) Always equal to molecularity
  • B) Never equal
  • C) May or may not be equal
  • D) Always greater
Answer: C
Explanation: Order is experimental, molecularity is theoretical.

Q58. Equilibrium constant depends on:

  • A) Temperature
  • B) Pressure
  • C) Volume
  • D) Concentration
Answer: A
Explanation: Only temperature changes equilibrium constant.

Q59. pH less than 7 indicates:

  • A) Acidic
  • B) Basic
  • C) Neutral
  • D) Salt
Answer: A
Explanation: pH < 7 → acidic solution.

Q60. Strong acid shows:

  • A) Partial ionization
  • B) Complete ionization
  • C) Weak bonding
  • D) High pH
Answer: B
Explanation: Strong acids fully ionize in solution.

Q61. Faraday’s laws are related to:

  • A) Thermodynamics
  • B) Electrolysis
  • C) Kinetics
  • D) Equilibrium
Answer: B
Explanation: Faraday’s laws describe the amount of substance deposited during electrolysis.

Q62. Electrical conductivity in solutions is due to:

  • A) Electrons only
  • B) Ions only
  • C) Both ions and electrons
  • D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: In electrolytic solutions, current is carried by ions.

Q63. Colligative properties depend on:

  • A) Nature of solute
  • B) Number of particles
  • C) Volume
  • D) Temperature
Answer: B
Explanation: Colligative properties depend only on number of solute particles.

Q64. Osmosis is movement of:

  • A) Solute
  • B) Solvent
  • C) Gas
  • D) Ion
Answer: B
Explanation: Solvent moves from dilute to concentrated solution through semi-permeable membrane.

Q65. Raoult’s law relates to:

  • A) Vapour pressure
  • B) Osmosis
  • C) Diffusion
  • D) Conductivity
Answer: A
Explanation: Vapour pressure of solution is proportional to mole fraction of solvent.

Q66. Periodic law is based on:

  • A) Atomic mass
  • B) Atomic number
  • C) Valency
  • D) Density
Answer: B
Explanation: Modern periodic law is based on atomic number.

Q67. Atomic radius generally:

  • A) Increases across period
  • B) Decreases across period
  • C) Constant
  • D) Random
Answer: B
Explanation: Due to increased nuclear charge, radius decreases across period.

Q68. Ionization energy:

  • A) Decreases across period
  • B) Increases across period
  • C) Constant
  • D) Zero
Answer: B
Explanation: Higher nuclear charge makes electron removal harder.

Q69. Electronegativity means:

  • A) Attraction of electrons
  • B) Loss of electrons
  • C) Gain of protons
  • D) Neutral behavior
Answer: A
Explanation: It is the tendency to attract shared electrons.

Q70. s-block elements are:

  • A) Non-metals
  • B) Reactive metals
  • C) Noble gases
  • D) Inert
Answer: B
Explanation: s-block elements (Group 1 & 2) are highly reactive metals.

Q71. p-block elements show:

  • A) Same properties
  • B) Varied properties
  • C) No reactivity
  • D) Only metals
Answer: B
Explanation: p-block elements include metals, non-metals and metalloids → hence varied properties.

Q72. d-block elements are:

  • A) Noble gases
  • B) Transition metals
  • C) Non-metals
  • D) Halogens
Answer: B
Explanation: d-block elements are known as transition metals.

Q73. Coordination compounds contain:

  • A) Ligands
  • B) Metals only
  • C) Non-metals only
  • D) Gases
Answer: A
Explanation: Ligands donate electron pairs to central metal ion.

Q74. Hydrogen bonding is:

  • A) Weak intermolecular force
  • B) Strong intermolecular force
  • C) Covalent bond
  • D) Ionic bond
Answer: B
Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is stronger than other intermolecular forces.

Q75. Alkane is:

  • A) Unsaturated
  • B) Saturated
  • C) Aromatic
  • D) Cyclic
Answer: B
Explanation: Alkanes have only single bonds → saturated hydrocarbons.

Q76. Alkene contains:

  • A) Single bond
  • B) Double bond
  • C) Triple bond
  • D) Ionic bond
Answer: B
Explanation: Alkenes contain at least one C=C double bond.

Q77. Benzene is:

  • A) Aliphatic
  • B) Aromatic
  • C) Saturated
  • D) Inorganic
Answer: B
Explanation: Benzene has conjugated ring structure → aromatic compound.

Q78. Isomerism means:

  • A) Same structure
  • B) Same formula, different structure
  • C) Different formula
  • D) Same bonding
Answer: B
Explanation: Isomers have same molecular formula but different arrangement.

Q79. Functional group determines:

  • A) Mass
  • B) Reactivity
  • C) Density
  • D) Volume
Answer: B
Explanation: Functional group controls chemical properties and reactions.

Q80. Alcohol contains:

  • A) –COOH
  • B) –OH
  • C) –CHO
  • D) –NH₂
Answer: B
Explanation: Alcohol functional group is hydroxyl (–OH).

Q81. Aldehyde group is:

  • A) –OH
  • B) –CHO
  • C) –COOH
  • D) –NH₂
Answer: B
Explanation: Aldehydes contain –CHO functional group.

Q82. Ketone group is:

  • A) –CO–
  • B) –OH
  • C) –CHO
  • D) –NH₂
Answer: A
Explanation: Ketones contain carbonyl group (–CO–) between carbons.

Q83. Carboxylic acid group is:

  • A) –OH
  • B) –CHO
  • C) –COOH
  • D) –NH₂
Answer: C
Explanation: Carboxylic acids contain –COOH group.

Q84. Amines contain:

  • A) Oxygen
  • B) Nitrogen
  • C) Hydrogen only
  • D) Carbon only
Answer: B
Explanation: Amines are derivatives of ammonia → contain nitrogen.

Q85. Polymers are:

  • A) Small molecules
  • B) Large molecules
  • C) Metals
  • D) Gases
Answer: B
Explanation: Polymers are macromolecules made of repeating units.

Q86. Catalyst increases rate by:

  • A) Increasing temperature
  • B) Lowering activation energy
  • C) Increasing pressure
  • D) Changing equilibrium
Answer: B
Explanation: Catalyst provides alternate pathway with lower activation energy.

Q87. Le Chatelier’s principle predicts:

  • A) Reaction rate
  • B) Equilibrium shift
  • C) Energy change
  • D) Pressure change
Answer: B
Explanation: System shifts to oppose change in conditions.

Q88. Oxidation is:

  • A) Gain of electrons
  • B) Loss of electrons
  • C) Gain of protons
  • D) Loss of neutrons
Answer: B
Explanation: Oxidation = loss of electrons (OIL RIG concept).

Q89. Reduction is:

  • A) Loss of electrons
  • B) Gain of electrons
  • C) Gain of oxygen
  • D) Loss of hydrogen
Answer: B
Explanation: Reduction = gain of electrons.

Q90. Electrochemical cell converts:

  • A) Electrical to chemical
  • B) Chemical to electrical
  • C) Mechanical to thermal
  • D) Light to electrical
Answer: B
Explanation: Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy.

Q91. Hybridization of carbon in methane is:

  • A) sp
  • B) sp²
  • C) sp³
  • D) sp³d
Answer: C
Explanation: Methane has tetrahedral geometry → sp³ hybridization.

Q92. Shape of CO₂ molecule:

  • A) Bent
  • B) Linear
  • C) Tetrahedral
  • D) Trigonal
Answer: B
Explanation: CO₂ has linear shape (180° bond angle).

Q93. Water molecule shape:

  • A) Linear
  • B) Bent
  • C) Tetrahedral
  • D) Square planar
Answer: B
Explanation: Due to lone pairs, H₂O has bent shape.

Q94. Strongest intermolecular force:

  • A) Van der Waals
  • B) Hydrogen bonding
  • C) Dipole force
  • D) London force
Answer: B
Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is strongest among given forces.

Q95. Enzymes are:

  • A) Carbohydrates
  • B) Proteins
  • C) Lipids
  • D) Minerals
Answer: B
Explanation: Enzymes are biological catalysts made of proteins.

Q96. DNA is composed of:

  • A) Amino acids
  • B) Nucleotides
  • C) Sugars
  • D) Lipids
Answer: B
Explanation: DNA consists of nucleotide units.

Q97. Vitamin C is:

  • A) Fat soluble
  • B) Water soluble
  • C) Insoluble
  • D) Mineral
Answer: B
Explanation: Vitamin C dissolves in water.

Q98. Polymerization is:

  • A) Breaking molecules
  • B) Joining monomers
  • C) Oxidation
  • D) Reduction
Answer: B
Explanation: Small monomers combine to form large polymer.

Q99. Detergents are:

  • A) Natural
  • B) Synthetic
  • C) Metals
  • D) Gases
Answer: B
Explanation: Detergents are synthetic cleaning agents.

Q100. Green chemistry aims to:

  • A) Increase pollution
  • B) Reduce pollution
  • C) Use more chemicals
  • D) Produce waste
Answer: B
Explanation: Green chemistry focuses on environmentally friendly processes.

NEET 2025 Biology MCQs (With Answers & Explanations)

Q101. The basic unit of life is:

  • A) Tissue
  • B) Organ
  • C) Cell
  • D) Atom
Answer: C
Explanation: Cell is the smallest structural and functional unit of life.

Q102. DNA is located in:

  • A) Cytoplasm
  • B) Nucleus
  • C) Ribosome
  • D) Golgi body
Answer: B
Explanation: DNA is mainly present in the nucleus (also in mitochondria).

Q103. Photosynthesis occurs in:

  • A) Mitochondria
  • B) Chloroplast
  • C) Ribosome
  • D) Nucleus
Answer: B
Explanation: Chloroplast contains chlorophyll for photosynthesis.

Q104. Protein synthesis occurs in:

  • A) Nucleus
  • B) Ribosome
  • C) Mitochondria
  • D) Golgi
Answer: B
Explanation: Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis.

Q105. Powerhouse of cell:

  • A) Nucleus
  • B) Ribosome
  • C) Mitochondria
  • D) Lysosome
Answer: C
Explanation: Mitochondria produce ATP (energy).

Q106. Xylem transports:

  • A) Food
  • B) Water
  • C) Hormones
  • D) Oxygen
Answer: B
Explanation: Xylem carries water and minerals from roots to leaves.

Q107. Phloem transports:

  • A) Water
  • B) Food
  • C) Oxygen
  • D) Minerals
Answer: B
Explanation: Phloem transports prepared food (sugars).

Q108. Mendel is known as:

  • A) Father of Biology
  • B) Father of Genetics
  • C) Father of Evolution
  • D) Father of Ecology
Answer: B
Explanation: Gregor Mendel discovered laws of inheritance.

Q109. Evolution theory was given by:

  • A) Mendel
  • B) Darwin
  • C) Lamarck
  • D) Watson
Answer: B
Explanation: Darwin proposed theory of natural selection.

Q110. Ecosystem includes:

  • A) Biotic factors
  • B) Abiotic factors
  • C) Both
  • D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Ecosystem includes living and non-living components.

Q111. Cell membrane is:

  • A) Permeable
  • B) Impermeable
  • C) Selectively permeable
  • D) Rigid
Answer: C
Explanation: Cell membrane allows selective entry and exit of substances.

Q112. Lysosomes are called:

  • A) Powerhouse
  • B) Suicide bags
  • C) Protein factories
  • D) Control center
Answer: B
Explanation: Lysosomes contain enzymes that can digest the cell itself.

Q113. ATP stands for:

  • A) Adenosine triphosphate
  • B) Adenine triphosphate
  • C) Adenosine diphosphate
  • D) Adenine diphosphate
Answer: A
Explanation: ATP is the energy currency of the cell.

Q114. Diffusion is movement of particles from:

  • A) Low to high concentration
  • B) High to low concentration
  • C) Equal concentration
  • D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Diffusion occurs down the concentration gradient.

Q115. Osmosis occurs through:

  • A) Cell wall
  • B) Semi-permeable membrane
  • C) Cytoplasm
  • D) Nucleus
Answer: B
Explanation: Osmosis is movement of water across semi-permeable membrane.

Q116. Mitosis results in:

  • A) Two identical cells
  • B) Four different cells
  • C) Two different cells
  • D) One cell
Answer: A
Explanation: Mitosis produces two genetically identical daughter cells.

Q117. Meiosis produces:

  • A) Two cells
  • B) Four haploid cells
  • C) One cell
  • D) Two diploid cells
Answer: B
Explanation: Meiosis results in four haploid gametes.

Q118. Blood is a type of:

  • A) Tissue
  • B) Organ
  • C) Cell
  • D) Fluid
Answer: A
Explanation: Blood is a connective tissue.

Q119. Heart has how many chambers?

  • A) 2
  • B) 3
  • C) 4
  • D) 5
Answer: C
Explanation: Human heart has 4 chambers (2 atria + 2 ventricles).

Q120. Oxygen is transported by:

  • A) Plasma
  • B) RBC
  • C) WBC
  • D) Platelets
Answer: B
Explanation: Hemoglobin in RBC carries oxygen.

Q121. Nephron is unit of:

  • A) Liver
  • B) Kidney
  • C) Lung
  • D) Heart
Answer: B
Explanation: Nephron is the functional unit of kidney.

Q122. Insulin regulates:

  • A) Blood pressure
  • B) Blood sugar
  • C) Heart rate
  • D) Temperature
Answer: B
Explanation: Insulin controls glucose levels in blood.

Q123. Reflex action is controlled by:

  • A) Brain
  • B) Spinal cord
  • C) Heart
  • D) Kidney
Answer: B
Explanation: Reflex actions are quick responses controlled by spinal cord.

Q124. Female gamete is:

  • A) Sperm
  • B) Ovum
  • C) Zygote
  • D) Embryo
Answer: B
Explanation: Ovum is the female reproductive cell.

Q125. Fertilization results in:

  • A) Embryo
  • B) Zygote
  • C) Foetus
  • D) Gamete
Answer: B
Explanation: Fusion of gametes forms zygote.

Q126. Immunity protects against:

  • A) Diseases
  • B) Growth
  • C) Digestion
  • D) Respiration
Answer: A
Explanation: Immune system defends against pathogens.

Q127. Vaccine provides:

  • A) Disease
  • B) Immunity
  • C) Weakness
  • D) Infection
Answer: B
Explanation: Vaccines stimulate immune response for protection.

Q128. Food chain shows:

  • A) Energy flow
  • B) Water flow
  • C) Air flow
  • D) Mineral flow
Answer: A
Explanation: Food chain represents transfer of energy.

Q129. Producers are:

  • A) Animals
  • B) Plants
  • C) Fungi
  • D) Bacteria
Answer: B
Explanation: Plants produce food via photosynthesis.

Q130. Biodiversity refers to:

  • A) Single species
  • B) Variety of life
  • C) Only plants
  • D) Only animals
Answer: B
Explanation: Biodiversity means variety of living organisms.

Q131. Chlorophyll is found in:

  • A) Mitochondria
  • B) Chloroplast
  • C) Nucleus
  • D) Ribosome
Answer: B
Explanation: Chlorophyll pigment is present in chloroplast for photosynthesis.

Q132. Stomata are present in:

  • A) Roots
  • B) Stem
  • C) Leaves
  • D) Flowers
Answer: C
Explanation: Stomata are small pores present on leaves for gas exchange.

Q133. Transpiration is loss of:

  • A) Oxygen
  • B) Water
  • C) Food
  • D) Minerals
Answer: B
Explanation: Plants lose water vapor through stomata.

Q134. Photosynthesis requires:

  • A) CO₂
  • B) Light
  • C) Chlorophyll
  • D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: All factors are necessary for photosynthesis.

Q135. Respiration produces:

  • A) Oxygen
  • B) ATP
  • C) Glucose
  • D) Nitrogen
Answer: B
Explanation: Cellular respiration releases energy in form of ATP.

Q136. Plant hormones are called:

  • A) Enzymes
  • B) Auxins
  • C) Vitamins
  • D) Proteins
Answer: B
Explanation: Auxins are common plant growth hormones.

Q137. Seed germination needs:

  • A) Water
  • B) Oxygen
  • C) Temperature
  • D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: All conditions are necessary for germination.

Q138. Human digestive enzyme is:

  • A) Amylase
  • B) Insulin
  • C) Hemoglobin
  • D) Chlorophyll
Answer: A
Explanation: Amylase breaks down starch into sugars.

Q139. Liver function is:

  • A) Digestion
  • B) Detoxification
  • C) Respiration
  • D) Circulation
Answer: B
Explanation: Liver detoxifies harmful substances.

Q140. Lungs help in:

  • A) Digestion
  • B) Respiration
  • C) Circulation
  • D) Excretion
Answer: B
Explanation: Lungs exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Q141. Hemoglobin carries:

  • A) CO₂
  • B) Oxygen
  • C) Nitrogen
  • D) Water
Answer: B
Explanation: Hemoglobin binds oxygen in RBCs.

Q142. Nervous system controls:

  • A) Movement
  • B) Coordination
  • C) Response
  • D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: Nervous system manages all body responses.

Q143. Endocrine glands secrete:

  • A) Enzymes
  • B) Hormones
  • C) Blood
  • D) Oxygen
Answer: B
Explanation: Hormones regulate body functions.

Q144. Thyroid gland controls:

  • A) Growth
  • B) Metabolism
  • C) Digestion
  • D) Respiration
Answer: B
Explanation: Thyroid hormone regulates metabolism.

Q145. Reproduction ensures:

  • A) Death
  • B) Continuity of species
  • C) Growth
  • D) Digestion
Answer: B
Explanation: Reproduction maintains species survival.

Q146. Male gamete is:

  • A) Ovum
  • B) Sperm
  • C) Zygote
  • D) Embryo
Answer: B
Explanation: Sperm is the male reproductive cell.

Q147. Genetic variation is important for:

  • A) Stability
  • B) Evolution
  • C) Death
  • D) Mutation only
Answer: B
Explanation: Variation leads to evolution.

Q148. Natural selection was proposed by:

  • A) Mendel
  • B) Darwin
  • C) Watson
  • D) Lamarck
Answer: B
Explanation: Darwin proposed natural selection theory.

Q149. Decomposers are:

  • A) Plants
  • B) Animals
  • C) Bacteria & fungi
  • D) Humans
Answer: C
Explanation: Decomposers break down organic matter.

Q150. Environment includes:

  • A) Living
  • B) Non-living
  • C) Both
  • D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Environment includes both biotic and abiotic factors.

Q151. Ecology deals with:

  • A) Cells
  • B) Environment
  • C) Tissues
  • D) Organs
Answer: B
Explanation: Ecology studies interaction between organisms and environment.

Q152. Habitat means:

  • A) Food chain
  • B) Natural home
  • C) Energy flow
  • D) Climate
Answer: B
Explanation: Habitat is the natural place where an organism lives.

Q153. Population means:

  • A) One organism
  • B) Group of same species
  • C) Different species
  • D) Ecosystem
Answer: B
Explanation: Population is group of organisms of same species.

Q154. Community consists of:

  • A) One species
  • B) Many species
  • C) Only plants
  • D) Only animals
Answer: B
Explanation: Community includes multiple species living together.

Q155. Biosphere includes:

  • A) Land
  • B) Water
  • C) Air
  • D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: Biosphere includes land, water, and air supporting life.

Q156. Pyramid of energy is always:

  • A) Upright
  • B) Inverted
  • C) Linear
  • D) Circular
Answer: A
Explanation: Energy decreases at each trophic level → always upright.

Q157. 10% law relates to:

  • A) Water
  • B) Energy transfer
  • C) Population
  • D) Temperature
Answer: B
Explanation: Only 10% energy is transferred to next trophic level.

Q158. Ozone layer protects from:

  • A) Visible light
  • B) UV rays
  • C) Infrared
  • D) X-rays
Answer: B
Explanation: Ozone layer absorbs harmful UV radiation.

Q159. Global warming is due to:

  • A) Oxygen
  • B) CO₂
  • C) Nitrogen
  • D) Hydrogen
Answer: B
Explanation: CO₂ increases greenhouse effect.

Q160. Acid rain is caused by:

  • A) CO₂
  • B) SO₂
  • C) O₂
  • D) H₂
Answer: B
Explanation: Sulfur dioxide forms sulfuric acid in rain.

Q161. Nitrogen fixation is done by:

  • A) Plants
  • B) Animals
  • C) Bacteria
  • D) Humans
Answer: C
Explanation: Bacteria convert nitrogen into usable form.

Q162. DNA replication occurs in:

  • A) G1 phase
  • B) S phase
  • C) G2 phase
  • D) M phase
Answer: B
Explanation: DNA synthesis occurs during S phase.

Q163. RNA differs from DNA in:

  • A) Sugar
  • B) Base
  • C) Structure
  • D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: RNA differs in sugar (ribose), base (uracil), and structure.

Q164. Mutation is:

  • A) Normal process
  • B) Genetic change
  • C) Growth
  • D) Digestion
Answer: B
Explanation: Mutation is sudden change in DNA.

Q165. Biotechnology uses:

  • A) Plants only
  • B) Animals only
  • C) Microorganisms
  • D) Minerals
Answer: C
Explanation: Microorganisms are widely used in biotechnology.

Q166. Antibiotics kill:

  • A) Viruses
  • B) Bacteria
  • C) Fungi
  • D) Plants
Answer: B
Explanation: Antibiotics are effective against bacteria.

Q167. Virus is:

  • A) Living
  • B) Non-living
  • C) Both
  • D) Plant
Answer: C
Explanation: Viruses show both living and non-living characteristics.

Q168. HIV affects:

  • A) Heart
  • B) Immune system
  • C) Brain
  • D) Liver
Answer: B
Explanation: HIV weakens immune system.

Q169. Malaria is caused by:

  • A) Virus
  • B) Bacteria
  • C) Protozoa
  • D) Fungi
Answer: C
Explanation: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium (protozoa).

Q170. Dengue spreads by:

  • A) Housefly
  • B) Mosquito
  • C) Air
  • D) Water
Answer: B
Explanation: Dengue is transmitted by Aedes mosquito.

Q171. Tuberculosis affects:

  • A) Liver
  • B) Lungs
  • C) Kidney
  • D) Heart
Answer: B
Explanation: TB mainly affects lungs and is caused by bacteria.

Q172. Balanced diet includes:

  • A) Carbohydrates
  • B) Proteins
  • C) Fats
  • D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: Balanced diet contains all nutrients in proper amounts.

Q173. Vitamin D helps in:

  • A) Vision
  • B) Bone health
  • C) Digestion
  • D) Respiration
Answer: B
Explanation: Vitamin D helps in calcium absorption and bone strength.

Q174. Deficiency of iron causes:

  • A) Diabetes
  • B) Anemia
  • C) Cancer
  • D) Obesity
Answer: B
Explanation: Iron deficiency leads to low hemoglobin → anemia.

Q175. Obesity is due to:

  • A) Undernutrition
  • B) Overnutrition
  • C) Infection
  • D) Genetics only
Answer: B
Explanation: Excess intake of food leads to obesity.

Q176. AIDS is caused by:

  • A) Bacteria
  • B) Virus
  • C) Fungus
  • D) Protozoa
Answer: B
Explanation: AIDS is caused by HIV virus.

Q177. Smoking affects:

  • A) Brain
  • B) Lungs
  • C) Heart
  • D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: Smoking damages multiple organs including lungs, heart, and brain.

Q178. Drug addiction affects:

  • A) Body
  • B) Mind
  • C) Behavior
  • D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: Addiction impacts physical and mental health.

Q179. Hygiene prevents:

  • A) Growth
  • B) Diseases
  • C) Respiration
  • D) Digestion
Answer: B
Explanation: Clean habits reduce infection risk.

Q180. First aid is given:

  • A) Before doctor
  • B) After doctor
  • C) Never
  • D) Only hospital
Answer: A
Explanation: Immediate help before medical treatment.

Q181. Blood group depends on:

  • A) RBC
  • B) Antigens
  • C) Plasma
  • D) Platelets
Answer: B
Explanation: Blood groups depend on antigens present on RBC.

Q182. Universal donor is:

  • A) A
  • B) B
  • C) AB
  • D) O
Answer: D
Explanation: O blood group can donate to all.

Q183. Universal recipient is:

  • A) A
  • B) B
  • C) AB
  • D) O
Answer: C
Explanation: AB can receive from all blood groups.

Q184. Pulse rate is measured at:

  • A) Veins
  • B) Arteries
  • C) Capillaries
  • D) Nerves
Answer: B
Explanation: Pulse is pressure wave in arteries.

Q185. Normal body temperature is:

  • A) 35°C
  • B) 36°C
  • C) 37°C
  • D) 38°C
Answer: C
Explanation: Normal human body temperature is 37°C.

Q186. Vaccination prevents:

  • A) Infection
  • B) Growth
  • C) Digestion
  • D) Respiration
Answer: A
Explanation: Vaccines protect against infectious diseases.

Q187. Antibiotics are ineffective against:

  • A) Bacteria
  • B) Viruses
  • C) Fungi
  • D) Parasites
Answer: B
Explanation: Antibiotics do not work against viruses.

Q188. Diabetes affects:

  • A) Sugar level
  • B) Oxygen level
  • C) Blood pressure
  • D) Temperature
Answer: A
Explanation: Diabetes affects blood glucose levels.

Q189. Insulin is produced by:

  • A) Liver
  • B) Pancreas
  • C) Kidney
  • D) Heart
Answer: B
Explanation: Pancreas secretes insulin hormone.

Q190. Hypertension means:

  • A) Low BP
  • B) High BP
  • C) Normal BP
  • D) No BP
Answer: B
Explanation: Hypertension = high blood pressure.

Q191. Cancer is caused by:

  • A) Controlled cell division
  • B) Uncontrolled cell division
  • C) Infection only
  • D) Nutrition
Answer: B
Explanation: Cancer involves uncontrolled growth of cells.

Q192. Tumor can be:

  • A) Benign
  • B) Malignant
  • C) Both
  • D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Tumors may be benign or malignant.

Q193. Antibiotic resistance occurs due to:

  • A) Mutation
  • B) Overuse
  • C) Both
  • D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Resistance develops due to mutation and misuse.

Q194. Biodegradable waste is:

  • A) Plastic
  • B) Glass
  • C) Organic waste
  • D) Metal
Answer: C
Explanation: Organic matter can decompose naturally.

Q195. Non-biodegradable waste is:

  • A) Leaves
  • B) Food
  • C) Plastic
  • D) Paper
Answer: C
Explanation: Plastic does not decompose easily.

Q196. Recycling helps to:

  • A) Increase waste
  • B) Reduce waste
  • C) Pollute
  • D) Destroy environment
Answer: B
Explanation: Recycling reduces waste and conserves resources.

Q197. Conservation means:

  • A) Destruction
  • B) Protection
  • C) Pollution
  • D) Waste
Answer: B
Explanation: Conservation is protection of natural resources.

Q198. National parks are for:

  • A) Farming
  • B) Industry
  • C) Wildlife protection
  • D) Housing
Answer: C
Explanation: National parks conserve biodiversity.

Q199. Sustainable development means:

  • A) Use resources fully
  • B) Save for future
  • C) Destroy nature
  • D) Ignore environment
Answer: B
Explanation: Meeting present needs without harming future.

Q200. Ecology balance is maintained by:

  • A) Humans only
  • B) Plants only
  • C) All organisms
  • D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: All organisms contribute to ecological balance.

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